Certification Exam- The Ignite Morpheus & Quantum

All of the following are true about Morpheus 8 except?

It is the most popular fractional RF remodeling device in the world
It is an external version of RFAL
It is a Bipolar planar and internal microelectrode configuration
It relies more on gentle dermal remodeling than FSN coagulation and contraction
The internal electrodes coagulate in the Adipose tissue and the external electrodes are distantly located on the skin and are all negatively charged
The device can coagulate to 7 mm, heat to 8 mm and heat non-ablatively at the level of the dermis

The following is true of the Morpheus 8?

It is only used for Facial remodeling and rejuvenation
It cannot be used around the eye or periocular structures
It is commonly used for both Body Contouring and Facial Rejuvenation
It’s BURST function limits depth to 4 mm

The Tremendous growth in Non-invasive procedures over the past 20 years can be attributed to all but one of the following?

Convergence of an aging population
Pharmaceutical toxin innovation
Energy based device innovation
The rejection of cosmetic enhancement by millennials
Traditional media reporting of cosmetic treatments
The rise of social media

In the mid-1990’s all of the following can be side of cosmetic medical procedures except?

Excisional plastic surgery was popular
Non-excisional procedures often had significant downtime
Non-invasive procedures were almost twice as popular as excisional procedures in the mid-1990’s
There was not the level of consumer awareness around cosmetic procedures that we see today

The 1980’s and 1990’s noninvasive energy-based devices were often lasers and all of the following can generally be said to be true except?

There was often significant downtime with non-invasive lasers and treatments
Pulsed dye laser treatment of blood vessels created purpura that often lasted many days
Q-switch laser treatment of brown spots and tattoo’s often had crusting that lasted for days
CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) lasers were launched for resurfacing of the skin and were popular because they had little to no downtime
Chemical peels had a lot of crusting and oozing that could last for many days
Often Surgery and Non-invasive treatments had the same lengthy downtime

Which of the following procedures was not part of the 1990’s non excisional procedure mix?

Endermology, such coupled massage devices for fat and cellulite
Q-switched Ruby lasers
Pulsed Dye Lasers
Botox injections
KTP 532 lasers
Fractional CO2 and Erbium ablative laser
Non-fractional Carbon Dioxide lasers
Collagen injections

The Following are accurate about “the Boomer” generation except?

Boomers were born between 1947-1964
Boomers created the “cult of youth”
Boomers just want to grow old gracefully and reject cosmetic medicine
Boomers are more interested in non-invasive than invasive procedures
Boomers helped launch and create the non-invasive cosmetic medical market
Boomers value looking and feeling young in the vanity culture

All of the following procedures from the 1990’s helped popularize noninvasive treatments except?

Botox
Cool-touch noninvasive laser
Laser Hair Removal
Intense Pulse Light Photo facials
Coolsculpting

What can be said about the growth of surgical vs non-surgical procedures over the past 25 years?

Surgical has grown 800% from 1997-2017
Surgical procedure fees account for $16 Billion in 2017
Non-invasive procedures have grown over 1000% over the past 20 years
Of the 17 million cosmetic procedures in the USA in 2017, Non-invasive procedures accounted for only 2.1 million

What contributed the most to the non-invasive cosmetic procedure market taking off in popularity?

TV shows, print and broadcast stories about the market
Nip Tuck, Extreme Makeover, The Swan, Dr. 90210
Social Media
The Millennials
The Kardashians
The Boomers
Botox
Restylane
IPL, Laser Hair Removal, RF
All of the Above

The current Cosmetic procedure market is?

In 2019, there was $1 Billion in Fees per year
In 2019, there 17+ Million procedures per year and most being surgical
There were $16 Billion in Fees per year in 2019 and 82% was excisional
Of the $16 Billion cosmetic enhancement market, 82% is non-excisional and 70% of this non-invasive market is Anti-aging Facial treatment

The following contributed to the non-invasive cosmetic medical procedure explosion except?

Convergence of Boomer consumers turning 50 years old
Emergence of invasive excisional plastic surgery done under local
Popularization of injectables
New, minimally invasive and non-invasive Energy based devices

All of the following can be said of the Millennial generation except?

They have embraced cosmetic enhancement
There are 80 million millennials and 80 boomers
They form a large buying group in the aesthetic medical procedure market
They do not like cosmetic facial enhancements as much as body
Their cosmetic buying decisions are affected by online influencers

Over the past 25 years, “downturn economies” have had all of the following impact on the cosmetic enhancement space except?

Downturn economies offer marketing opportunities to practices grabbing market share
Downturn economies force providers to position value propositions
Cosmetic business usually dries up and customers stop showing up until economic recovery
The “wallet share” may diminish but not the demand
Many practices can grow market share in a downturn economy

All of the following were downturn economies except?

Y2K Banking concerns
The dot-com crash
Post 911
Yearly Influenza
The 2008 Financial Crisis
COVID-19

What best describes the consumer spending behavior on cosmetic procedures during downturn economies?

Consumers stop showing up until the economy recovers
Consumer don't need to look good during downturn economies
Consumers don't spend on cosmetic procedures during downturn economies
Consumers will spend during a downturn but are often looking for value
The cosmetic enhancement industry almost vanished during COVID-19

The following are the non-invasive components of the practice “4-legged chair” of procedural offerings except?

Medical Skin Care
Neurotoxins
Patient financing
Soft Tissue Fillers
Energy Based Device

Non-invasive Energy Based Devices (EBD’s) grew quickly over the past 20 years because?

Non-invasive EBD’s outcomes improved
They became less painful
They became more affordable
They were associated with less downtime than surgery
All of the above

A GAP procedure is best defined as?

A procedure(s) providing outcomes that bridge the traditional non-invasive and excisional
Deliver good soft tissue contraction and remodeling
Do not have the large scars of excisional procedures
Do not have the same recovery as excisional procedures
Do not have the same risks as excisional procedures
Are usually more affordable than excisional procedures
All of the above

The Fastest growing procedures over the past 5 years include all but one of the following?

Skin Tightening devices
Non-invasive Fat destruction devices
Muscle contouring devices
Hyperhidrosis devices

RF stands for Radiofrequency energy and is best known for all but the one of the following?

BodyTite
FaceTite
Forma
Thermage
Morpheus
Juvederm
AccuTite

Thermal Stimulation is required for optimal?

Epidermal rejuvenation
Muscle Hypertrophy and Hyperplasia
Ultrasonic Fat destruction
Skin and Soft tissue RF contraction
Electroporation

What can be said of Optical Laser Hair Removal and Optical IPL Photo facial?

They are no longer popular
They have been largely replaced by RF (Radiofrequency)
They have too much downtime to be popular
They are still in the top 10 services you must offer
They are too expensive to offer anymore

The current energy-based device mix includes 70% /30% in the average practice for the following procedures?

70% Fillers and 30 % EBD’s (Energy Based Devices)
70% Body Contouring and 30 % Facial rejuvenation
70% Botox and 30% Fillers
70% retail skin care and 30% procedures and services
70% non-invasive Facial Antiaging treatments and 30% non-invasive Body Contouring device treatments
70% non-invasive and 30% Cosmetic plastic surgery

InMode innovation around the RF space incorporated the following successful philosophies except?

GAP RnD
RFAL
RnD around applicators that mimic top plastic Surgery procedures
Hand’s on “RFAL” with the Morpheus 8
High disposable costs
Procedures that worked similar to surgery but less downtime

InMode patented RFAL technology deploys all of following RF cut-off controls to ensure Optimal soft tissue contraction and thermal safety except?

Contact sensors
External thermal sensors
Internal thermal sensors
High and low impedance sensors
Rate of Rise of temperature sensors
Tissue skin type and blood flow
1000 measurements per second

Men have become a more important part of the cosmetic medical treatment landscape and common procedures in men include all of the following except?

Laser hair removal
Botox of frown lines
Lipo-contouring of love handles
Hair transplantation
Lip augmentation

The Morpheus 8 can be powered by several InMode workstations, and the Optimas in the USA is one of the most popular because it offers the following?

The 810 nm Diolaze, Diode laser hair removal
The Morpheus 8 Body Burst
IPL, Lumecca photo rejuvenation
The Morpheus 8 24 pin 4mm
Non-ablative temperature and RF controlled bulk dermal heating with the Forma
The Nd:YAG 1064 nm deep Vascular laser
All of the above

Many energy-based devices work on soft tissue contraction through the following?

The generation of heat through photon-chromophore interaction
The generation of Kinetic energy and heat
Ablative, coagulative or non-ablative thermal tissue effects
Thermally induced Inflammation and production of dermal collagen and ground substances
Direct thermal contraction of the Fibro-septal network
All of the above

All of the following is true about Electromagnetic Energy except?

Electromagnetic Energy (EME) is energy that travels in waves
EME spans a very broad wavelength spectrum
EME Includes very short wavelength X-rays and Ultraviolet light to very long wavelength radio waves and Cell phones
Humans can only see the Visible light EME spectrum between approximately 400nm and 700 nm
A Laser and IPL optical system are bundles of electromagnetic energy called photon’s, which travel in waves and the peak-to-peak distance is called the wavelength
Radiofrequency (RF) energy is very rapidly alternating electrical current and is also Electromagnetic Energy (EE) with very long wavelengths and very high frequency
RF works through Selective Photo thermolysis and a Chromophore

The following can be said of the InMode Laser technologies except?

InMode makes multiple Photo emitting devices
InMode makes an 810 nm laser hair removal device
InMode makes a 755 nm Alexandrite, 810 nm Diode, and 1064 nm Nd:YAG 3 lasers in once platform laser hair removal device
InMode makes a Pulsed Dye Vascular laser
InMode makes an Intense Pulsed Light (IPL) skin rejuvenation device
InMode makes a 1064 nm Nd:YAG Vascular laser

The following is correct about the history of Radiofrequency energy except?

Dr. Nikola Tesla, in the 1910’s is credited with being the father of high frequency, long wavelength, alternating RF current
Dr. William Bovie developed the first electrosurgical devices from 1914-1927
Elon Musk is credited with the development of alternating RF current
Dr. Harvey Cushing performed the first surgery using an electrosurgical generator and electrocautery in 1926

Radiofrequency (RF) energy is characterized by all of the following except?

Is Electromagnetic Energy
Is High frequency electrical current
Alternates rapidly between a positive and negative electrode
The commonly accepted FDA frequency is 100kHz – 5MHz or 100,000 (100 thousand) – 5,000,000 (5 million) cycles per second
RF energy works through Selective Photo thermolysis
RF energy oscillates all molecules in its pathway
RF energy creates Kinetic energy by oscillating molecules
RF energy has no chromophore and is color blind
The kinetic energy of molecular energy leads to heat
The RF tissue effects are primarily generated by this heat production

Which of the following factors is likely the most important factor determining Ablative versus Non-Ablative RF?

The amount of RF power generated
The configuration of the electrodes delivering the RF energy
The type of tissue being treated
The duration of the RF exposure

RF travels in the following fashion?

Is conducted through tissue between a positive and negative electrode
Oscillates molecule within its pathway
Intermolecular and intramolecular oscillation leads to Kinetic energy and heat
The RF waveforms is usually sine-form in medicine
The RF sine-form can be Continuous Wave, Burst or Pulsed
All of the above

All of the following are RF waveforms except?

Continuous
Burst
Interpolated
Pulsed

RF Power Density refers to?

How much RF wattage or voltage is applied to tissue
How long the RF energy is applied
The concentration of the energy on the electrode surface and tissue
How thick the tissue is that is being treated
The hydration of the tissue being treated

The following is true of Electrode Size except?

A large electrode generally spreads out the Power Density
A small electrode can create a very high-power density
A large electrode size is most commonly designed for ablative tissue coagulation
A fine point electrode or small electrode is most commonly designed for ablative tissue coagulation
A large electrode design is most often for non-ablative tissue* heating

Which of the following is true of InMode RFAL electrode design?

InMode has unique RFAL electrode designs that deploys 2 large Bi-Planar electrodes
InMode has unique RFAL electrode designs that deploys small 2-point Bipolar electrodes
InMode has unique RFAL electrode designs that deploys one large surface and one small, internal point electrode
None of the above

The Morpheus 8 is?

A monopolar RF system with 2 large planar electrodes
A Bipolar RF system with multiple large internal positive electrodes and one small external negative electrode
A Bipolar RF system with multiple tiny, positively charged point electrodes internally and larger planar, negatively charged electrode on the surface of the skin
A monopolar RF system with a point electrode and a negative grounding pad

What is the practical difference(s) between Mono-Polar and Bi-Polar RF Electrode configurations?

Monopolar RF flows from a positive electrode to a negative electrode which is most often a grounding pad on the surface of the patient distant from the procedure
Mono-Polar RF energy flows through the patient
Bi-Polar RF flows from a positive electrode to a negative electrode, both of which are deployed in the patient and in the treatment zone
Bi-Polar RF flows only between the electrodes and not through the patient to a grounding electrode (grounding pad)
All of the above

All of the following are true regarding an Eschar except?

Eschar is dehydrated, carbonized, ablated biologic tissue
Eschar commonly accumulates on the point tip of a positive electrode
Eschar accumulation augments the flow of RF between the electrodes
Eschar must be mechanically, or automatically (InMode RFAL) removed it from the electrode
Eschar will trigger a high impedance response from the InMode RFAL system and the RF will be turned off allowing the movement of the handpiece without RF to clean the Eschar from the positive electrode

InMode RFAL (AccuTite, FaceTite and BodyTite) Electrode geometry includes
all of the following except?

A larger, planar type, negatively charged surface electrode on the skin
A smaller, point type, positively charged electrode within the adipose
A Bipolar electrode configuration
RF flows from the internal positive electrode to the surface, negative electrode
The Bipolar handpiece is designed to move through the tissue in tandem
The distance between the electrodes can be controlled by the user
The RF energy (Watts) that flows from the workstation to the handpiece can be controlled by the use
The internal and external tissue cut-off temperatures can be controlled by the user

InMode RFAL users do not need to set the level of RF energy and power (Watts of RF) into the system when treating patients because?

The RF energy emitted is dependent upon the tissue tumescent
The RF energy emitted is fixed and does not change
The RF energy emitted is dependent upon the measured the size of the fat
The RF energy emitted is dependent upon the handpiece speed in tissue
The RF energy emitted is dependent upon the measured rate-of-rise of temperature

The InMode Morpheus 8 is an external RFAL applicator with all of the following features except?

The 40 Pins are each small coated, internal RF emitting electrodes
The Electrodes are all positively charged
The create a 100 micron+ zone of coagulative energy
The RF then flows to multiple, negatively charged, planar electrodes the surface of the skin
Whereas the RFAL applicators (AccuTite, FaceTite) are generally moving and static when emitting RF energy, the Morpheus 8 is static
The Morpheus 8 can emit BURST and Continuous wave RF
The Morpheus 8 coagulates the Adipose FSN internally
The Morpheus 8 tightens and remodels the dermis through non-ablative thermal energy and mechanical trauma from the needle to the dermis
The majority of contraction and soft tissue remodeling comes from the sequential, vertical FSN contraction
Because of its patented design and deep, internal positively charged Multiple electrode coagulation and energy and flow to distance larger negative electrode on the skin, the ablative index and coagulation zones are 10-50 times those of other standard bipolar, RF micro needling systems

Which one of the following most accurately describes the Thermal Containment that is an InMode RFAL and Morpheus 8 safety feature?

The RFAL patients are grounded
The Surgeons gloves protects them from RF thermal injury
The rapidly oscillating RF current flows between the positive electrode in the fat and the negative electrode on the skin, greatly minimizing thermal risk to structures deep to the internal electrode
RF flows from the internal, positively charged RFAL electrode and then to the negatively charged grounding pad on a patient site distant to the procedure which contains the thermal energy within the patient’s body
None of the above

The Following RFAL (AccuTite and FaceTite) are features of the technology except?

The negative electrode is larger and on the surface of the skin
The positive electrode is small and placed within the adipose
RF flows from positive to negative
RF oscillates molecules in its path creating kinetic energy and heat
The heat is coagulative and ablative close to the internal point electrode
The heat is non-ablative on the surface of the skin
RF output and hence soft tissue heating are automatically modulated through a feedback loop by measuring contact, impedance, internal and external temperature cut-offs and the rate-of-rise of tissue temperature
The treatment can be statis (stamping) or moving
When moving the external and internal electrodes moving in tandem
The majority of contraction occurs from dermal remodeling

RFAL Safety Features include all of the following except?

Contact Sensors
External thermal cut-off
Internal Thermal cut-off
Audible alerts on temperature rising
Total KJ of RF deposited
High impedance cut-off (temperature falls to quickly)
Low impedance cut-off (temperature rises to quickly)
Rate-of-rise of temperature

Which of the following best describes the Advantage of InMode’s direct thermal, contact and impedance sensors versus indirect Infrared thermal skin sensing?

Indirect Infrared skin sensors are not integrated into the operating systems of the devices, do no measure deep adipose temperature, contact, impedance, or rate of rise of temperature and do not automatically adjust the RF outflow around tissue dynamics outlined above
InMode Direct thermal sensors are built into the applicators and sense tissue temperature directly
InMode Direct thermal sensors are fully integrated into the Software algorithm of the device and can automatically adjust RF outflow around the sensed and measured tissue temperature
InMode Direct thermal sensors can measure and control both External (Skin) and Internal (Adipose) temperatures and RF output simultaneously
InMode can also sense, measure and control, contract, high and low impedance as well as the rate of rise of temperature and automatically control RF outflow around these parameters
All of the above

Temperature Surge Protection, or TSP, refers to all of the flowing except?

An automated feedback loop built into the RFAL system that adjust the RF output to optimal tissue heating, volumetric velocity
Automatically turns off the RF energy to the internal electrode when the rate-of-rise of temperature exceeds 35 Degrees Celsius/cm3/second
Automatically reduces RF energy to the internal electrode when the rate-of-rise of temperature is between 20-35 Degrees Celsius/cm3/second
Requires the user to take their foot off and then back on the foot-pedal to reactivate the procedure
TSP cannot be performed on facial soft tissue, as it is too dangerous
If there are too many TSP errors in a row, then add more tumescent solution to the adipose tissue to left and separate the adipose tissue which will slow the rate of rise of temperature

What is the Quantum RF?

A tool for generating laser beams for tissue repair
A device that utilizes bipolar radiofrequency energy to transform heat and achieve soft tissue reduction
A machine for measuring the smallest unit of matter
A diagnostic tool for brain imaging

What is the function of the Quantum RF in tissue treatment?

It creates soft tissue repair through laser light
It delivers an ultrashort pulse of radiofrequency energy to cause tissue destruction and FSN contraction
It measures tissue elasticity
It monitors the temperature of the skin during surgery

How does Quantum RF create heat in tissues?

Through continuous laser exposure
By creating oscillating molecular motion in the tissue at a frequency of 1 million Hertz
By using high-frequency sound waves
By injecting chemicals that react to produce heat

What is the typical temperature spike closest to the Quantum RF electrodes during tissue treatment?

30-40°C
50-60°C
90-100°C
120-130°C

What is the primary benefit of using ultrashort pulse durations in the Quantum RF system?

To increase bulk heating in the tissue
To avoid bulk heating and create discrete zones of ablation, coagulation, and thermal injury
To continuously monitor tissue elasticity
To allow continuous tissue damage and high heat conduction

What is the purpose of the ceramic interface between the positive and negative electrodes in the Quantum RF probe?

To improve energy conduction
To reduce heat generated
To separate the flow of energy between the electrodes
To provide insulation for the skin

What is the typical duration of a Quantum RF pulse?

1-2 seconds
250-500 milliseconds
10-20 milliseconds
1 minute

How much adipose destruction is created by each pulse of the Quantum RF 25 at 10 joules?

0.08 ml
0.03 ml
0.5 ml
1 ml

What is the size of the adipose destruction zone created by the Quantum RF 10 per pulse?

83 mm³
25 mm³
100 mm³
50 mm³

How does the body remove the fat destroyed by the Quantum RF?

Through liposuction immediately after the procedure
By an inflammatory response involving macrophages and phagocytosis
By absorbing it into the muscle
Through natural sweating and excretion

What percentage of the target fat volume is destroyed during treatment to ensure safe removal by macrophages?

0.2
0.05
0.5
0.1

What temperature range is optimal for FSN contraction during Quantum RF treatment?

40-45°C
66-69°C
50-55°C
80-85°C

How long does it take for the body to absorb the destroyed adipose tissue after Quantum RF treatment?

2-4 weeks
6-8 weeks
12-24 weeks
48 hours

How does the Quantum RF create soft tissue tightening if there is no electrode on the skin?

By stimulating collagen production with RF pulses
Through FSN contraction and post-treatment inflammatory remodeling
By heating the skin directly
Through rapid cooling of the treatment area

What is the estimated energy deposition time to destroy 37.5 ml of adipose tissue in a medium treatment zone using the Quantum RF 25?

1 minute
3.9 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes

How many pulses are required to achieve 2.5 ml of adipose destruction in a small treatment zone using the Quantum RF 10?

50 pulses
33 pulses
83 pulses
100 pulses

What is the primary indication for the Quantum RF procedure?

Skin tightening without adipose reduction
Localized collections of unwanted subcutaneous adipose tissue
Full body fat removal and contouring
Generalized obesity treatment

Which of the following body zones is NOT typically treated with Quantum RF for body contouring?

Abdomen
Arms
Calves
Inner Knees

Which of the following patients is a poor candidate for Quantum RF treatment?

A patient with localized fat and good skin tone
A patient with dark skin type prone to post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH)
A patient with minimal fat and tight skin
A patient with a pacemaker

What is the recommended skin tone for the Quantum RF procedure to be most effective?

Very loose and lax skin
Good to moderate skin tone
Extremely tight skin
Skin with significant scarring

For patients with darker skin types (Type 4-6), what is a significant risk following Quantum RF treatment?

Complete skin tightening failure
Increased post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH)
Rapid adipose tissue regrowth
Severe burns on the skin surface

What expectation should a patient have regarding fat reduction after a single Quantum RF treatment?

50% reduction in adipose tissue
Complete elimination of adipose tissue
A 10% reduction in localized adipose tissue
Instant weight loss of over 20 pounds

Which of the following is TRUE about managing patient expectations for Quantum RF?

It is recommended to set very high expectations to ensure patient satisfaction.
Managing patient expectations down is critical to avoid unrealistic outcomes.
Patients should expect to see no improvement after the procedure.
Most patients can expect results similar to excisional procedures.

How long is the recommended recovery time following Quantum RF treatment, including wearing a compression garment?

1-2 days
3-5 days
7-21 days
1 month

Why should patients with personality disorders such as Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) generally be avoided for Quantum RF treatment?

These patients have unrealistic expectations and poor satisfaction rates.
They tend to recover more slowly.
Their condition can affect the skin’s ability to heal.
They require more anesthesia during the procedure.

What is the first step in the Quantum RF treatment sequence?

Local Anesthesia
Pinch Test
Marking Out
Sterile Skin Preparation

The pinch test helps estimate the depth of treatment. What percentage of the pinch test is used to determine the depth?

0.25
0.5
0.75
1

What is used for sterile skin preparation in the Quantum RF treatment sequence?

Alcohol
Chlorhexidine or Betadine
Hydrogen Peroxide
Sterile Water

What is the purpose of the pre-tunnel testing in the Quantum RF treatment?

To clean the skin
To assess subcutaneous anesthesia and depth
To measure skin temperature
To mark the access port

What is the recommended distance from the access port to the treatment area?

2 cm
4 cm
6 cm
10 cm

When performing Quantum RF, which direction is the treatment performed?

Superficial to deep
Lateral to medial
Deep to superficial
Randomly

What is the temperature range at which irreversible adipose coagulation and FSN contraction occur during Quantum RF treatment?

30-40°C
55-70°C
80-90°C
100-110°C

Over what time frame is the average 25% pinch test reduction expected after Quantum RF treatment?

1-2 weeks
4-6 weeks
12-24 weeks
6-12 months

Which applicator is used for body contouring zones like the abdomen and thighs?

Quantum RF 5 cm
Quantum RF 10 cm
Quantum RF 25 cm
Quantum RF 40 cm

Which device may be used for facial contouring if there is less than 2 cm of pinchable fat?

Quantum RF 10 cm
AccuTite
Morpheus8
FaceTite

How long should a patient typically wait before undergoing a subsequent Quantum RF session?

1 month
2-3 months
3-5 months
6-12 months

Why is no aspiration required after Quantum RF treatment?

The adipose tissue is vaporized
The body eliminates necrotic adipose tissue via macrophages
The adipose tissue is too small to aspirate
The RF energy liquefies the fat completely

What is reviewed during the preoperative visit for Quantum RF treatment?

The patient's medical history
The treatment areas, recovery, risks, and benefits
The patient's daily diet plan
The patient's social media accounts

When should the patient take the prescribed antibiotic for the procedure?

Two days before the procedure
Two hours before the procedure
After the procedure
A week before the procedure

What kind of garment is suggested for Quantum RF Body zones?

A specific liposuction garment
Two pairs of Spanx support wear
A compression suit
No garment is required

Why must the patient arrange transportation after the Quantum RF procedure?

The procedure requires sedation
The patient may experience dizziness after local anesthesia
It is a hospital regulation
The procedure causes temporary blindness

What happens if the patient is identified as a non-responder to Quantum RF treatment?

They must pay for another treatment
A second treatment is offered at no charge
The treatment is canceled immediately
The patient is referred to another specialist

What might void the Quantum RF Guarantee?

Gaining any weight after the preoperative visit
Changing their diet
Missing a follow-up appointment
Not signing the informed consent form

What is important to consider when using the Quantum RF 10 cm applicator on facial areas?

Stay above the facial muscles and investing fascia
Apply it directly to the facial nerves
Use it in the deep muscle layers
Always combine it with liposuction

What is the primary role of topical anesthesia in the Quantum RF procedure?

To provide complete pain relief for the procedure
To reduce initial discomfort from the lidocaine injections
To eliminate the need for any further anesthesia
To ensure the procedure is completed faster

How long before the lidocaine injections should the topical anesthetic be applied?

Immediately before the injections
10 minutes before
30 minutes or more before
1 hour before

Which combination of topical anesthetic ingredients is included in the BLT formulation?

23% Lidocaine, 7% Tetracaine
20% Benzocaine, 7% Lidocaine, 4% Tetracaine
23% Lidocaine, 7% Tetracaine, 0.2% Phenylephrine
20% Benzocaine, 7% Tetracaine

What medication is typically offered for pain management during the Quantum RF procedure, assuming there are no contraindications?

Morphine
Acetaminophen
Toradol
Oxycodone

How is Pronox Nitrous Oxide used in the Quantum RF procedure?

As a general anesthetic to put the patient to sleep
As an analgesic and anxiolytic to reduce pain and anxiety
To enhance the efficacy of the topical anesthetic
To numb the entire treatment area completely

What is the purpose of the Mesocaine technique in Quantum RF comfort management?

To provide deep tumescent anesthesia
To deliver a very dilute local lidocaine anesthesia up to 2 cm deep
To act as a substitute for nitrous oxide
To completely numb the entire body

When using the Deeper Wetting Lidocaine technique, how does it differ from tumescent anesthesia?

It uses a much larger volume of anesthetic solution
It is applied as a very distended, tense infiltration
It involves a gentle, modest volume of injection without creating compression
It is used only for facial procedures

What should be done if a patient experiences discomfort during pre-tunneling with the Quantum RF cannula?

Immediately stop the procedure
Adjust the anesthesia by adding slightly more wetting solution
Increase the speed of the procedure
Apply additional topical anesthetic

What type of pain medication is recommended post-Quantum RF procedure?

Narcotics
Acetaminophen, Ibuprofen, or Toradol
Antihistamines
Muscle relaxants

How is the Mesocaine lidocaine prepared for injection?

By mixing 1 bottle of 1% Lidocaine with 100 ml of saline
By diluting 20 ml of 1% Lidocaine with 1000 ml of saline
By using 10 cc syringes of undiluted Lidocaine
By preparing a gel formulation for topical use

How is the effective thickness for body Quantum RF treatment determined?

By using 75% of the Pinch Test
By calculating 50% of the Pinch Test and subtracting 2 cm
By calculating 50% of the Pinch Test and subtracting 1.5 cm
By measuring the thickness directly without adjustments

How many layers are typically treated for body zones in Quantum RF procedures?

1-2 layers
2-3 layers
3-4 layers
4-5 layers

For facial Quantum RF treatments, what is the target effective thickness?

1.5 cm
2.5 cm
1.0 cm
2.0 cm

How many layers are generally used for facial Quantum RF treatments?

1-2 layers
2-3 layers
3-4 layers
4-5 layers

In the Quantum RF Parameters Recipe Summary, what is the formula to calculate the target fat volume?

Actual Fat – 0.5 cm
Actual Fat – Avoidant Fat
Pinch Test – 1 cm
Effective Thickness + Avoidant Fat

How should the total number of pulses be divided when treating a zone in Quantum RF?

By the number of layers
By the total depth of treatment
By the total number of zones
By the size of the treatment area

What is the velocity or speed of movement during Quantum RF treatments?

2 cm per second
3 cm per second
5 cm per second
7 cm per second

What is the purpose of performing multiple passes at each level during Quantum RF treatment?

To increase the energy delivered per pulse
To create discrete areas of adipose destruction and FSN contraction
To reduce the number of total pulses required
To minimize the treatment time

When planning a Quantum RF treatment, what should be considered for each level?

Only the pulse count
Pulse count and KJ cut off at each level
The size of the treatment area
The type of cannula used

What should be avoided to prevent peri-port injury during Quantum RF treatment?

Moving the cannula too slowly
Coming back to the same point with each retrograde pass
Using a non-dominant hand on the cannula
Increasing the number of pulses

How should you handle the retrograde peri-port technique to avoid hyperthermia and burns?

Return to the exact same point each time
Avoid using any specific technique
Envision a 2-4 cm radius semi-circle around the port and always return to a new point on the radius
Increase the depth of the cannula penetration

What technique should be used to monitor Kilojoule deposition and pulse count during treatment?

Single-handed technique
Bimanual technique
Digital technique
Manual measurement

What is the purpose of placing your non-dominant hand on the skin of the treatment zone?

To control the speed of the cannula
To estimate the depth of the cannula and feel for warmth on the skin
To increase the number of pulses
To adjust the power settings

What is the purpose of the Zig-Zag technique around the access port during Quantum RF treatments?

To increase the speed of treatment
To prevent localized heat build-up and thermal injury
To reduce the number of passes required
To enhance the depth of treatment

How should you adjust your approach when performing retrograde strokes near the access port?

Return to the same point for consistency
Move in a straight line to the access port
Return to a different point around the semi-circle each time
Avoid using the Zig-Zag technique

What is the primary benefit of using the wetting technique with dilute lidocaine in Quantum RF treatments?

It enhances the color of the treatment area
It minimizes the risk of treating below the SMAS or platysma and allows for more precise treatment
It increases the energy delivery efficiency
It speeds up the overall treatment time

Where should access ports for treating the jowl and jawline be located?

At the upper cheekbone and near the ear
At the mandibular border, sub-lobular space, or commissure
On the forehead and beneath the chin
At the temple and behind the ear

What depth does the Quantum RF treat?

Up to 0.5 cm above the dermis
Up to 1.0 cm below the skin
Below 1.0 cm to a depth of 0.5 cm above the underlying muscle
Only the dermis

How does Quantum RF differ from Morpheus 8?

Quantum RF targets dermal layers, while Morpheus 8 targets subcutaneous tissue
Morpheus 8 treats deeper adipose tissue, while Quantum RF treats surface fat
Quantum RF delivers ultrashort pulse duration RF to deeper adipose tissue, while Morpheus 8 delivers bipolar RF to both adipose and dermis
Quantum RF is used for skin tightening only, while Morpheus 8 is used for fat reduction

When should the Morpheus 8 be used in conjunction with the Quantum RF?

Only when skin tone is excellent
After Quantum RF, if the skin has moderate to significant laxity, is thin and elastotic, or has atrophic striae or cellulite
Before Quantum RF, if the skin is thick
During Quantum RF for added fat reduction

What is one of the main benefits of Quantum RF?

It requires no anesthesia
It is a non-invasive treatment
It is a profitable procedure that complements other revenue streams like Morpheus and injectables
It provides immediate fat removal

What is the primary advantage of Quantum RF over traditional liposuction?

It requires more extensive recovery time.
It causes significant pain and discomfort.
It avoids high-pressure aspiration trauma and promotes a quicker recovery.
It is more invasive and traumatic than liposuction.

Why is there minimal pain reported after Quantum RF treatment?

Due to the use of general anesthesia.
Because the procedure involves no aspiration and minimal trauma to nerves and tissues.
The treatment is done without any energy or RF application.
Pain is managed by administering strong narcotics.

Which of the following is a common short-term symptom associated with liposuction but not Quantum RF?

Mild bruised discomfort
Swelling
Little to no ecchymosis
Minimal pain

What is recommended for immediate post-Quantum RF care regarding activity?

Complete bed rest for 3 days
Avoid all physical activity for 7 days
Return to normal low-impact activities the following day
Avoid all daily activities for 2 weeks

When can patients resume high-impact aerobic or isometric activities after Quantum RF?

Immediately after the procedure
3 days post-procedure
7 days post-procedure
2 weeks post-procedure

What should patients avoid to prevent UV light dyschromia after Quantum RF?

Cold temperatures
High-impact activities
Tanning or UV light exposure
Drinking alcohol

How are the Quantum RF body contouring areas classified?

Fatty, Slim, and Average
Small, Medium, and Large Zones
Superficial, Deep, and Ultra-Deep Zones
Minor, Major, and Critical Zones

What is the area size of a small treatment zone in Quantum RF contouring?

5×5 cm
10×15 cm
15×30 cm
20×20 cm

Which body part is classified under the small treatment zone in Quantum RF contouring?

Outer thigh
Submentum
One Hip
Lower abdomen

How is a large zone defined in Quantum RF treatment?

5×5 cm
Two medium zones
One small and one medium zone
Two large zones

What is the pulse count needed for adipose destruction in a small zone?

53 pulses
83 pulses
123 pulses
153 pulses

How many pulses are typically required per hemi-medium zone in a large Quantum RF treatment zone?

113 pulses
253 pulses
463 pulses
623 pulses

What is a common cause of scars during Quantum RF treatment?

Lack of proper wound care
Excessive adipose destruction
Secondary intent thermal injury
Overuse of topical silicone

Which of the following is a preventative measure for avoiding thermal injury scars during Quantum RF treatment?

Applying topical lightening products
Using Fractional RF resurfacing
Following the Quantum RF kilojoule cut-off maps
Performing a pinch test

Which of the following treatments is used for established pigmentation or dyschromia after Quantum RF treatment?

Picosecond device
IPL
Fractional CO2 resurfacing
Silicone injections

What is the best way to minimize the risk of adipose contour irregularity during Quantum RF treatment?

Applying Kenalog injections post-procedure
Even distribution and deposition of heat
Using Fractional RF resurfacing
Performing surgical excision

In which case might a patient be recommended a surgical excision procedure following Quantum RF treatment?

Presence of scars
Residual skin laxity
Formation of fibrotic lumps
Seroma bursa formation

Which of the following describes an effective treatment for a fibrotic lump after Quantum RF treatment?

Surgical excision
Picosecond device
Dilute Kenalog injections
Topical lightening

What is a recommended strategy to prevent patient dissatisfaction after Quantum RF treatment?

Offering free follow-up treatments
Managing patient expectations effectively
Performing secondary surgical excision
Ensuring complete removal of adipose tissue

Certification Exam- The Ignite Morpheus & Quantum

Certification Exam- The Ignite Morpheus & Quantum

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